Proofs of Primes and Logs (Deep Dive)
Q: If x is between 0 and 1, what is the probability that the greatest
integer ≤ logn(1/x) is odd, in terms of n.
integer ≤ logn(1/x) is odd, in terms of n.
Definition of logn(1/x) = y is ny = 1/x.
S: For the greatest integer ≤ logn(1/x) to equal 1, we must have a value
between 1/n and 1/n2 . Then for the greatest integer ≤ logn(1/x) to equal 3, we
must have a value between 1/n3 and 1/n4 . This process continues and we
are left with a geometric sequence:
between 1/n and 1/n2 . Then for the greatest integer ≤ logn(1/x) to equal 3, we
must have a value between 1/n3 and 1/n4 . This process continues and we
are left with a geometric sequence:
(n-1)/n2 + (n-1)/n4 + (n-1)/n6 + (n-1)/n8 …..
= (n-1)/n2
(n2-1)/n2
= __(n-1)__
(n+1)(n-1)
= _1_
(n+1)
Q: What is the remainder when (1)(1+2)(1+2+3)(1+2+3+4)...(1+2+3..+58+59) is divided by 61?
S: We can rewrite this as:
1*2*2*3*3*4*4*5*5*6*...*58*59*59*60
2^59
Q: What is the remainder when (1)(1+2)(1+2+3)(1+2+3+4)...(1+2+3..+58+59) is divided by 61?
S: We can rewrite this as:
1*2*2*3*3*4*4*5*5*6*...*58*59*59*60
2^59
We can then change this to:
59!*60!
2^59
By Wilson's formula, for any prime p, (p-1)! + 1 ≡ 0 (mod p)
We can then change it to
59!*-1 (mod 61)
2^59
We can also convert 59! --> 1(mod p) because:
60!=60*59!
-1 mod 61≡ -1 mod 61* x mod 61
x must be 1 to satisfy this equation.
Then, this equation becomes:
-1 (mod 61) = 61a+N
2^59
Where N is our answer.
Next, we need to find 2^59 mod 61
To do that, we can make a list.
2^10 --> 48
2^10 --> 48
2^20 --> 47
2^40 --> 13
2^9 --> 24
2^50 --> 14
2^59 --> 31
We can then reformat our equation since the 61a is unnecessary.
-1 mod 61 ≡ N * 31 mod 61
When N=2,
-1 mod 61 ≡ 1 mod 61
Since -1 mod 61 is the inverse of 1 mod 61, we need to find the inverse of 2 mod 61 which is 59.
Therefore, our answer is 59.
I tried this problem with divided by 59 and 67 and they both got 57 and 65.
General problem: Remainder when 1*(1+2)(1+2+3)...(1+2+3+...+p-3+p-2) is divided by p.
This seems to work for all prime numbers p and always gives a result of p-2.
Generalized:
(p-2)!*(p-1)! = -1 mod p
2^p-2 2^p-2
Generalized:
(p-2)!*(p-1)! = -1 mod p
2^p-2 2^p-2
Using Fermat's little theorem, a^p-1 ≡ 1 mod p
We can then plug in 2 and a prime to get:
2^p-1 ≡ 1 mod p because 2 and the prime are relatively prime.
Then, we will divide both sides by 2, to get:
2^p-2 ≡ -2 mod p because since we divided, it is the inverse
-2 mod p= p-2 mod p, so p-2 is our answer for all primes.
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